Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

Post a reply

Confirmation code
Enter the code exactly as it appears. All letters are case insensitive.

BBCode is OFF
Smilies are OFF

Topic review
   

Expand view Topic review: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by Pieter » Tue Jun 03, 2008 4:49 pm

At first it does, and this was seen by the generals writing the plans for 'Fall Gelb" in '39/'40 as the main reason the Schlieffen plan failed.
All else being equal however Antwerp becomes an active port of war as there's no 1839 treaty with the Netherlands to be considered and the BEF gets in through Antwerp and into a core hub of the belgian railway system. The defence of the port gains a number of Krupp built 9.4" and 11" pieces as the dutch navy had some interesting long range artillery (no, you don't operate paraffin running U-Boats in a difficult estuary area) and becomes a real problem in the race to the coast.
Difficult situation and it gives some support to Moltke's decision not to go through The Netherlands.
chuck wrote:Let's try a more plausible scenario:
Would it help Germany if she invaded holland to ease her passage through Belgium?
?

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by chuck » Mon Jun 02, 2008 9:02 am

The Influence of Sea Power Upon History's influence is on future US naval outlook, it is not an expression of contemporary American military philosophy.

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by Werner » Mon Jun 02, 2008 8:56 am

The Kaiser ordered all his officers to read Mahan's The Influence of Sea Power Upon History, so I am sure the Kaiser had more than a passing knowledge of American military philosophy.

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by JWintjes » Mon Jun 02, 2008 8:25 am

Gone Asiatic wrote:
chuck wrote:As far back as 1900, Germany had prepared war plans against the US. It should be pointed out that Spanish-American war and the charge up San Juan hill did not impress the Germans of American fighting ability and the will to resist.
The Kaiser-dude probably was impressed with the USMC at Bellauwood
The German war plan stipulated that at the onset of war, Germany would transport 30,000 troops, on chartered foreign ships no less, to New York. Once there these 30,000 troops would seize New York, apparently overwhelming any local resistance. It is thought the loss of New York would cause American to immediately sue for peace, accepting any condition the Kaiser care to impose, thus bring the German-American war to a successful conclusion in an expeditious manner without taking even a single German corp out of the European stand off.
The Kaiser-dude evidently knew nothing of the 1812 War. Didn`t the Kaiser-dude quip that should the British army land in Europe he would "dispatch the constabalry to arrest it." (?)
Chances are the Kaiser was never aware of these plans. As I said, they originated with an academic paper written up by a fairly junior officer.

Jorit

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by Gone Asiatic » Mon Jun 02, 2008 5:39 am

chuck wrote:As far back as 1900, Germany had prepared war plans against the US. It should be pointed out that Spanish-American war and the charge up San Juan hill did not impress the Germans of American fighting ability and the will to resist.
The Kaiser-dude probably was impressed with the USMC at Bellauwood
The German war plan stipulated that at the onset of war, Germany would transport 30,000 troops, on chartered foreign ships no less, to New York. Once there these 30,000 troops would seize New York, apparently overwhelming any local resistance. It is thought the loss of New York would cause American to immediately sue for peace, accepting any condition the Kaiser care to impose, thus bring the German-American war to a successful conclusion in an expeditious manner without taking even a single German corp out of the European stand off.
The Kaiser-dude evidently knew nothing of the 1812 War. Didn`t the Kaiser-dude quip that should the British army land in Europe he would "dispatch the constabalry to arrest it." (?)

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by JWintjes » Mon Jun 02, 2008 4:18 am

ASFC wrote: You are putting words into my mouth! I said he was surronded by plenty of sycophants in his court, who would do anything to gain favour (evidence of this can be seen by the fact that Caprivi gave up after four years of being Chancellor and then followed several ineffective German Chancellors (although none as strong as Bismarck)), not that he was an idiot! My point being is that from a military point of view, the Kaiser would have been best placed with his military background to judge these things, but that politically these things would be considered by those in high up circles because they felt the need to please him with their next scheme in 'Weltpolitik'.
Sorry, that wasn't in any way aimed at you personally - just a general gruntling sound if disagreement. :big_grin:

What I meant was that the role the Kaiser actually played in formulating Germany's foreign policy is very often immensely overrated. While he could do nice things like giving interviews which sent the people at the Wilhelmstrasse into hyperdrive, he couldn't actively make foreign policy, nor could he decide on matters of war and peace.

Jorit

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by JWintjes » Mon Jun 02, 2008 4:12 am

chuck wrote:That's not fair, you said you only had a couple of points.
Actually, I had a couple of things. "Things" imply a multiple - so a couple of things could well be 4 in all... :wink:
I know the 30000 troop New York invasion plan can't be a serious , sanctioned war plan, but it's a good story that had a grain of truth in it. When a story is good, even if it is not entirely true, it ought to be told like it is!
Applied to the famous 30,000 men executed per year by the French during WW1 this means what?

:big_grin: :big_grin: :big_grin:

Jorit

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by ASFC » Mon Jun 02, 2008 2:42 am

JWintjes wrote: 1) "Riddle of the Sands" is a 1903 piece of fiction by Erskine Childers - I strongly suggest reading it, it's fantastic fun, and both the film and the TV series they made out of it pale into insignificance in comparison. It was hugely successful at the time, particularly as it arrived on the market when there was a (or rather another) invasion scare going on in Britain.
Done all three, its just the film seems more readily available round my part of the world at the moment, hence i suggested it. :cool_1:
4) I know it is quite popular to think of German pre-war policy as being essentially the Kaiser stumbling around totally and utterly clueless.
You are putting words into my mouth! I said he was surronded by plenty of sycophants in his court, who would do anything to gain favour (evidence of this can be seen by the fact that Caprivi gave up after four years of being Chancellor and then followed several ineffective German Chancellors (although none as strong as Bismarck)), not that he was an idiot! My point being is that from a military point of view, the Kaiser would have been best placed with his military background to judge these things, but that politically these things would be considered by those in high up circles because they felt the need to please him with their next scheme in 'Weltpolitik'.

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by chuck » Mon Jun 02, 2008 1:58 am

That's not fair, you said you only had a couple of points.

I know the 30000 troop New York invasion plan can't be a serious , sanctioned war plan, but it's a good story that had a grain of truth in it. When a story is good, even if it is not entirely true, it ought to be told like it is!

:big_grin: :big_grin: :big_grin:

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by JWintjes » Mon Jun 02, 2008 1:52 am

ASFC wrote:
chuck wrote:As far back as 1900, Germany had prepared war plans against the US. It should be pointed out that Spanish-American war and the charge up San Juan hill did not impress the Germans of American fighting ability and the will to resist. The German war plan stipulated that at the onset of war, Germany would transport 30,000 troops, on chartered foreign ships no less, to New York. Once there these 30,000 troops would seize New York, apparently overwhelming any local resistance. It is thought the loss of New York would cause American to immediately sue for peace, accepting any condition the Kaiser care to impose, thus bring the German-American war to a successful conclusion in an expeditious manner without taking even a single German corp out of the European stand off.
Have you ever watched the 1978 film Riddle of the sands? (not that i'm denying that the Germans (sorry, the Kaiser) would come up with such a scheme) It should be remembered that he was surronded by a lot of sycophants in his court (like who thought they could hire these 'foreign ships'). Although i'm not sure of US Army strength at the time, it sounds like it would never have succeeded.
Ok, a couple of things.

1) "Riddle of the Sands" is a 1903 piece of fiction by Erskine Childers - I strongly suggest reading it, it's fantastic fun, and both the film and the TV series they made out of it pale into insignificance in comparison. It was hugely successful at the time, particularly as it arrived on the market when there was a (or rather another) invasion scare going on in Britain.

2) Proper German invasion planning for the US was never done. What we have are some studies that were written by one low-ranking German navy officer in particular; while these caused some interest among higher-ranking circles there was never something like a "attack plan USA". Don't forget that academic papers are written all the time by aspiring young officers as well as established ones - there is a nice piece of Schlieffen on the Battle of Cannae. This doesn't mean they even remotely think about putting that into practice.

3) While the political relationship between Germany and the USA was indeed strained around the turn of the century, there would have been no invasion even if war had actually broken out, which in itself is not exactly likely.

4) I know it is quite popular to think of German pre-war policy as being essentially the Kaiser stumbling around totally and utterly clueless. Nothing could be further from the truth. While German foreign policy ultimately failed - or not, depending on whether you believe that they actually wanted the war - people by and large knew what they did. And invading the USA was most certainly not in.

Jorit

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by ASFC » Mon Jun 02, 2008 1:14 am

chuck wrote:As far back as 1900, Germany had prepared war plans against the US. It should be pointed out that Spanish-American war and the charge up San Juan hill did not impress the Germans of American fighting ability and the will to resist. The German war plan stipulated that at the onset of war, Germany would transport 30,000 troops, on chartered foreign ships no less, to New York. Once there these 30,000 troops would seize New York, apparently overwhelming any local resistance. It is thought the loss of New York would cause American to immediately sue for peace, accepting any condition the Kaiser care to impose, thus bring the German-American war to a successful conclusion in an expeditious manner without taking even a single German corp out of the European stand off.
Have you ever watched the 1978 film Riddle of the sands? (not that i'm denying that the Germans (sorry, the Kaiser) would come up with such a scheme) It should be remembered that he was surronded by a lot of sycophants in his court (like who thought they could hire these 'foreign ships'). Although i'm not sure of US Army strength at the time, it sounds like it would never have succeeded.

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by kennylibben » Mon Jun 02, 2008 12:51 am

Interesting to both of you, I hadn't been aware of either of the information you both posted!

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by chuck » Mon Jun 02, 2008 12:48 am

As far back as 1900, Germany had prepared war plans against the US. It should be pointed out that Spanish-American war and the charge up San Juan hill did not impress the Germans of American fighting ability and the will to resist. The German war plan stipulated that at the onset of war, Germany would transport 30,000 troops, on chartered foreign ships no less, to New York. Once there these 30,000 troops would seize New York, apparently overwhelming any local resistance. It is thought the loss of New York would cause American to immediately sue for peace, accepting any condition the Kaiser care to impose, thus bring the German-American war to a successful conclusion in an expeditious manner without taking even a single German corp out of the European stand off.

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by ASFC » Mon Jun 02, 2008 12:27 am

[off-topic] despite the fact that Zimmermann himself admitted that it was true in March 1917 [/off topic]

:big_grin:

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by kennylibben » Mon Jun 02, 2008 12:18 am

You're thinking of the Zimmerman Note... yes, that's what happened - although it wasn't the only reason America joined... it was the final blow.

However, it is actually believed that the note was created by the British and purposely put in American hands to get them to join on their side.

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by ASFC » Mon Jun 02, 2008 12:15 am

And forgive me i'm a bit rusty on my WW1 history, but wasn't it the intercepting of a telegram between Germany and Mexico encouraging Mexico to invade the Southern states that finally brought America into the war? If Germany was hoping in anyway that America might side with it, Insurance underwriters or not, it wasn't going about it the right way with that telegram and the Lusitania sinking.

Germany would have been demoralised by America sideing with Britain and France because it knew winning the war would be more difficult, not because any of the German Leadership had links to America. Its like saying the Japanese were demoralised because they had to go to war with America in 1941 because they had links to America and because the likes of Yamamoto had lived and studied there, where in fact it would be much more likely that they were slightly demoralised because they knew it was going to be a difficult war (or certain Admirals knew it would be).

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by chuck » Sun Jun 01, 2008 11:22 pm

Werner wrote:I wonder if the fact that America, which was a VERY German country in the 19th Century would side with the British and French had any moral and morale implications on the German leadership and army.

The recent wave of German immigration doesn't make America a very German country.

In wealth, culture and finance, American's tie to Britain was dominant. In the 10 years leading up to WWI, outside areas receiving major German immigration, the reputation of Germany amongst Americans was low. Germany was associated in popular minds not only with the stereotypically aggressive and unpleasant Prussian traits, but also with disreputable business ethics. A singularly devastating blow to Germany's reputation occurred in the aftermath of the great San Francisco earthquake of 1906, during which British insurance underwriters were perceived as scrupulously honest and generous, and German insurance industry were perceived as grossly dishonest and underhanded. Lloyds of London's telegraphed instructions to its San Francisco agents to "pay all claims in full" was widely publicized to enormous public acclaim throughout the states, The story of German insurance firms closing theirs San Francisco offices and using outrageous legalistic contortions to avoid paying anything at all in the aftermath of the quake generated widespread condemnation, not only of German insurance industry, but also the German national character in general. In the months after the San Francisco earthquake, the reputation of the "German national character" in most of the US would have been little better than the reputation of the ruling Junta of Berma today.

In the aftermath of Lusitania, the story of the behavior of German insurance firms 10 years before were rehashed again in American newspapers, and remained every bit as effective in whipping up anti-German sentiment as 10 years before.

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by kennylibben » Sun Jun 01, 2008 10:04 pm

Quite possibly, even if it wasn't for the fact that it was German... but for the same reasons it raised French/British morale it would have lowered German morale.

I wonder how high the hopes were with the Germans for America siding with them? It would be somewhat understandable since America and Britain were still not very friendly until WWI, what with the War of 1812, Recognition of the CSA, etc.
France wasn't very close anymore either.

It would make some sense that they would expect America to side with Germany... especially since Germany was only defending Austria-Hungary against Russia (originally).

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by Werner » Sun Jun 01, 2008 9:35 pm

I wonder if the fact that America, which was a VERY German country in the 19th Century would side with the British and French had any moral and morale implications on the German leadership and army.

Re: Why did the Central Powers ultimately lose the war?

by kennylibben » Sun Jun 01, 2008 9:26 pm

I do agree with that as well - it may not been the main blow, but it was probably the coup de grace. Not only were there fresh troops and equipment, with a huge population to pull from and unscathed industry to support them, but it also drastically increased morale for the entente.

Top